Because the Arabic language has a closer relationship to the Hebrew language than English, it seems reasonable to believe the Hebraic idioms would be similar to those used by Arabs. With that said; have you ever used Strong's Concordance to look up the meaning of the word "virgin"?
The Hebrew word for "virgin" - or "maiden" - is listed in Strong's Concordance as H1330 and is translated as:
H1330
בּתוּלה
bethûlâh
beth-oo-law'
Feminine passive participle of an unused root meaning to separate; a virgin (from her privacy); sometimes (by continuation) a bride; also (figuratively) a city or state: - maid, virgin.
Therefore, in reality, the Hebrew word for "virgin" is likely to be the word Yahshua used as the "figurative" meaning for a city (or state) in the 'parable of the talents'.
Since Hebrew idioms are probably better understood by those who speak Arabic, it seems probable that media has put a sexual "spin" on the figurative meaning of the word "virgin". Was this deliberate? If so, who had the authority to correct it? Why has misinterpretation of the desired reward for Jews, Christians and Muslims continued?
What bothers me most is that Alah is reported to give his servants authority over 70+ cities for their well doing, while, in
Luke 19:17, Yahweh gives HIS servants only 10 cities. What's this about?
Is there a lesson here? If so; What is that lesson?
Luke 19:17 reads: "
. . . he said unto him, Well, thou good servant: because thou hast been faithful in a very little, have thou authority over ten cities.